Ma · Mathematics

How Is the Convolution of an L1 and an L2 Function Defined?

Published By the 9to5Science editorial team

At a glance

  1. 1. Choose a convention

    On R^n with Lebesgue measure, use (f*g)(x) = integral of f(y)g(x-y) over y.

  2. 2. Define almost everywhere

    The integral is absolutely convergent for almost every x; the convolution is understood as an L2 equivalence class.

  3. 3. Apply Young's inequality

    If f is in L1 and g is in L2, then f*g is in L2 and its norm is at most ||f||1 ||g||2.

  4. 4. Check an example

    Convolving two unit-interval indicators gives a triangular function with L2 norm sqrt(2/3).

For functions on Rn\mathbb{R}^n with Lebesgue measure, the convolution of an L1L^1 function and an L2L^2 function is defined by an integral, but generally only for almost every input xx. The result is an L2L^2 function, understood up to equality almost everywhere.

The key estimate is Young’s convolution inequality: ∥f∗g∥2≤∥f∥1∥g∥2\|f*g\|_2 \leq \|f\|_1\|g\|_2. It both guarantees that the convolution is well behaved and controls its size.

Definition

Let f∈L1(Rn)f\in L^1(\mathbb{R}^n) and g∈L2(Rn)g\in L^2(\mathbb{R}^n). Using the standard convention, define

(f∗g)(x)=∫Rnf(y)g(x−y) dy.(f*g)(x)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(y)g(x-y)\,dy.

This formula is meaningful for almost every xx, not necessarily for every xx. The spaces L1L^1 and L2L^2 contain equivalence classes of functions: changing a function on a set of measure zero does not change the element of the space. Accordingly, the convolution is also an equivalence class of functions in L2L^2.

A common alternative writes the formula as ∫f(x−y)g(y) dy\int f(x-y)g(y)\,dy. A change of variables shows that these conventions agree almost everywhere on Rn\mathbb{R}^n.

Why the integral exists almost everywhere

The integrand need not be integrable for every fixed xx. However, the integral of its absolute value is finite for almost every xx. To see this, take any bounded measurable set K⊂RnK\subset\mathbb{R}^n. Tonelli’s theorem and the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality give

∫K∫Rn∣f(y)∣ ∣g(x−y)∣ dy dx=∫Rn∣f(y)∣∫K∣g(x−y)∣ dx dy≤∫Rn∣f(y)∣ ∣K∣1/2∥g∥2 dy=∣K∣1/2∥f∥1∥g∥2<∞.\begin{aligned} \int_K\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}|f(y)|\,|g(x-y)|\,dy\,dx &=\int_{\mathbb{R}^n}|f(y)|\int_K|g(x-y)|\,dx\,dy\\ &\leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}|f(y)|\,|K|^{1/2}\|g\|_2\,dy\\ &=|K|^{1/2}\|f\|_1\|g\|_2<\infty. \end{aligned}

Here ∣K∣|K| denotes the Lebesgue measure of KK. Therefore the inner integral is finite for almost every xx in KK. Covering Rn\mathbb{R}^n by countably many bounded sets shows that the convolution integral is absolutely convergent for almost every xx in all of Rn\mathbb{R}^n.

Why the convolution belongs to L2

For a fixed yy, the function x↦g(x−y)x\mapsto g(x-y) is a translate of gg. Translation preserves the L2L^2 norm, so ∥g(⋅−y)∥2=∥g∥2\|g(\cdot-y)\|_2=\|g\|_2. Applying the integral form of the triangle inequality in L2L^2 (Minkowski’s inequality) gives

∥f∗g∥2=∥∫Rnf(y)g(⋅−y) dy∥2≤∫Rn∣f(y)∣ ∥g(⋅−y)∥2 dy=∥f∥1∥g∥2.\begin{aligned} \|f*g\|_2 &=\left\|\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} f(y)g(\cdot-y)\,dy\right\|_2\\ &\leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^n}|f(y)|\,\|g(\cdot-y)\|_2\,dy\\ &=\|f\|_1\|g\|_2. \end{aligned}

This is the L1∗L2→L2L^1*L^2\to L^2 case of Young’s inequality. One rigorous way to read the integral in this argument is as an integral taking values in the Banach space L2L^2: the integrand has norm ∣f(y)∣∥g∥2|f(y)|\|g\|_2, which is integrable in yy. This produces an L2L^2 function and agrees almost everywhere with the pointwise integral above.

Worked example

On R\mathbb{R}, take f=g=1[0,1]f=g=\mathbf{1}_{[0,1]}, where 1[0,1]\mathbf{1}_{[0,1]} is 1 on [0,1][0,1] and 0 elsewhere. Both functions belong to L1L^1 and L2L^2, and each has L1L^1 norm 1 and L2L^2 norm 1.

For each xx, the convolution is the length of the overlap of the intervals [0,1][0,1] and [x−1,x][x-1,x]. Thus, up to endpoint values, which do not affect the L2L^2 function,

(f∗g)(x)={x,0<x<1,2−x,1≤x<2,0,otherwise.(f*g)(x)= \begin{cases} x, & 0<x<1,\\ 2-x, & 1\leq x<2,\\ 0, & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases}

Its squared L2L^2 norm is

∥f∗g∥22=∫01x2 dx+∫12(2−x)2 dx=23,\|f*g\|_2^2=\int_0^1 x^2\,dx+\int_1^2(2-x)^2\,dx=\frac{2}{3},

so ∥f∗g∥2=2/3\|f*g\|_2=\sqrt{2/3}. Young’s inequality predicts only that this norm is at most 1⋅1=11\cdot1=1, which the example satisfies.

Common mistakes

  • Assuming the integral exists for every xx. The standard L1∗L2L^1*L^2 definition guarantees absolute convergence almost everywhere. Values at exceptional points can be assigned arbitrarily without changing the resulting L2L^2 function.
  • Treating an L2L^2 function as necessarily integrable. On an infinite-measure space, L2L^2 does not in general sit inside L1L^1. The convolution is guaranteed to be in L2L^2, not necessarily in L1L^1.
  • Forgetting the measure and domain. The formula and norm estimate here use Lebesgue measure on Rn\mathbb{R}^n. On a locally compact group, the analogous definition uses Haar measure, with conventions adjusted to the group operation and choice of left or right Haar measure.

References

  1. Real Analysis: Modern Techniques and Their Applications, Gerald B. Folland
  2. Real and Complex Analysis, Walter Rudin

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