How Is the Convolution of an L1 and an L2 Function Defined?
At a glance
- 1. Choose a convention
On R^n with Lebesgue measure, use (f*g)(x) = integral of f(y)g(x-y) over y.
- 2. Define almost everywhere
The integral is absolutely convergent for almost every x; the convolution is understood as an L2 equivalence class.
- 3. Apply Young's inequality
If f is in L1 and g is in L2, then f*g is in L2 and its norm is at most ||f||1 ||g||2.
- 4. Check an example
Convolving two unit-interval indicators gives a triangular function with L2 norm sqrt(2/3).
For functions on with Lebesgue measure, the convolution of an function and an function is defined by an integral, but generally only for almost every input . The result is an function, understood up to equality almost everywhere.
The key estimate is Young’s convolution inequality: . It both guarantees that the convolution is well behaved and controls its size.
Definition
Let and . Using the standard convention, define
This formula is meaningful for almost every , not necessarily for every . The spaces and contain equivalence classes of functions: changing a function on a set of measure zero does not change the element of the space. Accordingly, the convolution is also an equivalence class of functions in .
A common alternative writes the formula as . A change of variables shows that these conventions agree almost everywhere on .
Why the integral exists almost everywhere
The integrand need not be integrable for every fixed . However, the integral of its absolute value is finite for almost every . To see this, take any bounded measurable set . Tonelli’s theorem and the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality give
Here denotes the Lebesgue measure of . Therefore the inner integral is finite for almost every in . Covering by countably many bounded sets shows that the convolution integral is absolutely convergent for almost every in all of .
Why the convolution belongs to L2
For a fixed , the function is a translate of . Translation preserves the norm, so . Applying the integral form of the triangle inequality in (Minkowski’s inequality) gives
This is the case of Young’s inequality. One rigorous way to read the integral in this argument is as an integral taking values in the Banach space : the integrand has norm , which is integrable in . This produces an function and agrees almost everywhere with the pointwise integral above.
Worked example
On , take , where is 1 on and 0 elsewhere. Both functions belong to and , and each has norm 1 and norm 1.
For each , the convolution is the length of the overlap of the intervals and . Thus, up to endpoint values, which do not affect the function,
Its squared norm is
so . Young’s inequality predicts only that this norm is at most , which the example satisfies.
Common mistakes
- Assuming the integral exists for every . The standard definition guarantees absolute convergence almost everywhere. Values at exceptional points can be assigned arbitrarily without changing the resulting function.
- Treating an function as necessarily integrable. On an infinite-measure space, does not in general sit inside . The convolution is guaranteed to be in , not necessarily in .
- Forgetting the measure and domain. The formula and norm estimate here use Lebesgue measure on . On a locally compact group, the analogous definition uses Haar measure, with conventions adjusted to the group operation and choice of left or right Haar measure.
References
- Real Analysis: Modern Techniques and Their Applications, Gerald B. Folland
- Real and Complex Analysis, Walter Rudin
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