relationship between discrete and continuous time inner product
If $f$, $g$ are continuous on $[a,b]$, the Riemann integral can be viewed as a limit of discrete inner products: $$ \int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x)\,dx = \lim_{\|\mathcal{P}\|\rightarrow 0} \sum_{\mathcal{P}}f(x_{j}^{\star})g(x_{j}^{\star})\Delta_{j}x $$ where $\sum_{\mathcal{P}}\Delta_{j}x=b-a$. So this looks like a weighted inner-product where the weights always add to $b-a$, which allows you to take such a limit. Without the sum of the weights always remaining bounded, the limit would get out of hand.
Related videos on Youtube
ernst
Updated on August 01, 2022Comments
-
ernst over 1 year
My question regard the relationship between discrete and continuous inner product $\langle f(x), g(x)\rangle =\int_a^b f(x)\overline{g(x)}dx=\lim_{N\to \infty}\sum_{i=0}^N f(a+(b-a)i/N)\overline{g(a+(b-a)i/N)}\frac{b-a}{N}\\$
$\langle \textbf{x}, \textbf{y}\rangle = \sum_{i=1}^N \textbf{x}(i)\overline{\textbf{y}(i)}$
It is the $\frac{b-a}{N}$ that confuses me: i know the definition of riemann integral and the infinite sum definition (without the dx term the sum would diverge) But with this term we cannot express the continuous inner product as a limiting case of the discrete one.
If the dimension of $\textbf{x}$ is $N$ we cannot simply say that continuous time inner product is the limit case of the discrete one. Any suggestion?
A similar question was already proposed in Understanding dot product of continuous functions but to me it is not clear the $\frac{b-a}{N}$ term
Forgive my poor english and my poor formalism (I am writing form a smartphone and using latex is very difficult), thank to everyone
-
ernst about 9 yearsso this was my first interpretation: the continuous function can have an inner product if we use a weight function (in this case as you explained is the $\Delta_{j}x$ factor. This weight function is not present in the discrete case, or at least it is unitary (that is obviously the same thing). So my new question now is:does it exist a general weight function that can fit in both definitions?
-
Disintegrating By Parts about 9 yearsIf $\alpha_{j}$ are positive numbers, then $(x,y)=\sum_{j=1}^{N}\alpha_{j}x_{j}y_{j}$ is an inner-product on $\mathbb{R}^{N}$, for example. If $A$ is a positive definite $N\times N$ matrix, then $(x,y)_{A}=(Ax,y)$ is also an inner-product, which, after a change of basis, is a weighted inner product with some positive $\alpha_{j}$, at least when viewed in the coordinate system of the eigenvectors of $A$. Similarly, if $\rho > 0$, then $\int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x)\rho(x)\,dx$ is an inner product. Or, more generally, if $\mu$ is a positive measure on $[a,b]$, then $\int fgd\mu$ is an inner product.